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(Dee Speaking) | ||||||
You're assuming that if a private employer refuses to hire someone because of their race or color, it violates the moral rights of that person. Because rights have been violated, an injustice has occurred. That raises the question of compensation --as in the case of theft. Now slavery fits this model because it violated the basic human right to liberty. But it's not at all clear that anything similar happens when someone refuses to hire a black person (or a white person, for that matter) because of color. What right does that violate?
Why shouldn't private employers be allowed to hire on any basis they wish? Same thing with private schools. Why interfere?
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