I'm just a political
science major, but it seems to me that you folks are missing another
question about this argument.
If I remember my philosophy 101 class, it seems to me that there
was a lot said about not being able to derive 'ought' from 'is.' But
isn't that just what Herskovits is trying to do here when he talks
about tolerance?
I agree that it's good to exercise a substantial degree of
tolerance with regard to other cultures. And I agree that
non-interference is usually good. But I don't see how we can derive the value of
tolerance from the fact of difference. Here's the question:
- Do the differences among moral systems imply the obligation to
be tolerant and to avoid interference with other cultures?
Even if we add that scientific methods cannot prove the superiority
of one moral system, we would still have a similar question:
- Do the difference among moral systems combined with the
inability of scientific methods to prove superiority imply the
obligation to be tolerant and to avoid interference with other
cultures.
I think Herskovits' heart is in the right place, but he may be trying to do
the impossible.