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(Ann Speaking) | ||||||
MAIN PATH: Fred | |||||||
If employers harmed one generation of blacks through discrimination, if those people cannot be found, and if their children have suffered indirectly from losses due to that discrimination, why shouldn't the employers provide some sort of compensation to the children?
Maybe it should be cash. Maybe it should be training. Maybe it should be job preference. But why dismiss the notion outright?
We would do it in the case of property wouldn't we? What's the difference?
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