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In deciding Roe the Court made every existing anti-abortion
law in the United States unconstitutional. Blackmun said not only
that a woman had a right of privacy that included the right to
end a pregnancy, but also that the right was "fundamental."
This meant that a state must demonstrate more than a rational
connection between a limitation of the right and a legitimate
state interest. It meant that only a "compelling" interest
could justify a limitation. Such a standard places abortion virtually
outside the purview of state legislatures during the first trimester of pregnancy.
Should the right to terminate a pregnancy be regarded as fundamental? Why not apply the (lower) rational connection standard? Can you argue for or against either application on the basis of legal precedent or some other constitutional ground?
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